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Warrenx
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Posted 03/31/11
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#1
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In Dr. Craig's lecture "Who Does Jesus Think He Was?", Dr. Craig discusses the Q document. He paraphrases a statement from the early bible which basically stated that Jesus Christ is the sole revelation of God to Man. If that statement is true, then where does that leave John and Revelations? Obviously there are many sub-revelations of God to man by prophets, apostles, saints, and others, but I think that the Book of Revelations is unique in the sense that John explicitly intends it as a vicarious revelation of God's plan for mankind. Is not then this mutually exclusive with the declaration of the Christ that he is the sole revelation of God to mankind? I understand this is subject to a word play war, such as Jesus is direct revelation whereas John is tertiary revelation so its skew from that statement; but,if for practicality sake, you hold these two statements (one explicit, one declared) on equal ground, something has to give doesn't it? I would truly hope that both of these are syncretic.
I am listening to the lecture while I type this and I am not good at multi-tasking so don't expect modal mastery  .
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RobertH
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Posted 04/01/11
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#2
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Jesus is not the sole revelation of God to man. God has revealed Himself in many different ways; for instance, that He is tri-personal. Jesus cannot be the sole revelation if God has revealed Himself to us as Father, Son, and Spirit.
Are you sure you heard him correctly or that it was in context properly? I am not familiar with the lecture you are talking about. If it is old I probably watched it a while ago.
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Warrenx
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Posted 04/01/11
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#3
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Hey Robert thanks for the response. The statement in the lecture occurs at around the 1/3 point (sorry doesn't have track time). Dr. Craig is discussing a segment from the Book of Matthew (or might be a derivative of Q document) where it is believed Jesus expresses his self-awareness as the Son of God; furthermore, Dr. Craig goes on to quote a selection from Mark 11 where it says, "No one can know the Son, but the Father." He then defends this as a genuine quote by pointing out that the early church would not have inserted a quote that undermines Jesus's overtness (quoting a letter from Paul). It is then after this selection that Dr. Craig says of Jesus, "Moreover, he claims to be the only revelation of God the Father to mankind."
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emailestthoume
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Posted 07/27/11
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#4
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Quote: Originally Posted by WarrenxHey Robert thanks for the response. The statement in the lecture occurs at around the 1/3 point (sorry doesn't have track time). Dr. Craig is discussing a segment from the Book of Matthew (or might be a derivative of Q document) where it is believed Jesus expresses his self-awareness as the Son of God; furthermore, Dr. Craig goes on to quote a selection from Mark 11 where it says, "No one can know the Son, but the Father." He then defends this as a genuine quote by pointing out that the early church would not have inserted a quote that undermines Jesus's overtness (quoting a letter from Paul). It is then after this selection that Dr. Craig says of Jesus, "Moreover, he claims to be the only revelation of God the Father to mankind."
I know Dr. Craig would affirm that God has revealed himself to humanity in different ways. For example, he edited a book on natural theology which is the study of "natural revelation"--God's revelation apart from scripture. Probably what he meant to say is that Jesus is God's final revelation, or something like that.
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