Originally Posted by gnosisandlight
I have a quick question regarding The Logical Problem of Evil. Most of the formulations of this argument that I am privy to require the definition of omnipotence to be defined as the ability to do anything at all, including things that are logically incomprehensible. I think that this very stringent rendering of the term is done so as to parry the inevitable theistic thrust of the freewill theodicy. The question I have is:
if the atheologian insists on defining the omnipotence of God as being without logical limitations, hasn't he also spoiled his own argument? Why would a logical contradiction be an issue at all regarding a being who can perform or accomplish logical impossibilities by definition? It seems to me that the issue persists, but it ceases to be a problem.
I am not overly well versed on the subject but I haven't seen anyone else raise this objection before. On account of that I think that I must be missing something. Any elucidation would be appreciated.